I have always thought one way about pot odds (they way i thought of it is the same way they talk about it in books like super system 2) and now i just watched Final Table Poker with Phil Gordon and what he said there confused me

I always worked it out like this:

If i need to call 100 into a pot that is ALREADY 700 (before my 100 extra), im getting 7to1 on my money. Therefore if i call there will be 800 in pot. This is the way that Jennifer Harman explains examples in SS2

But when watching FTP with Gordon. He explained it differently. Using the same example he said that to call 100 into a pot that is already 700 would be 8 to 1 as your 100 represents one eighth of the pot

Ive always used the first senario but when i watched FTP w/Gordon, i just had a thought that maybe i wad doing it wrong and even sometimes folding based on the maths when i should have called. IE - When i needed; say 7.5to1 to call (pot was 700 and i needed to call and extra 100 so i thought i was only getting 7to1) but in actual fact i was getting 8to1 as my 100 represents 1/8 of the pot.

They are two different views both from professionals so i didnt know which one to follow when making plays based on maths

HELP????

If the pot is 700 and someone bets 100, you are getting 8:1 to call.. I think they are just wording that differently.

I'm pretty sure the situation is what Cuse is saying, and you may have misunderstood what Gordon was saying. I would guess that there is 700 in the pot, your opponent bets 100, and now the action is on you, you are getting 8:1 on a call. In the Harman example it's probably 700 in the pot including the current bet, so in that case it's 7:1 on a call.

I'm pretty sure the situation is what Cuse is saying, and you may have misunderstood what Gordon was saying. I would guess that there is 700 in the pot, your opponent bets 100, and now the action is on you, you are getting 8:1 on a call. In the Harman example it's probably 700 in the pot including the current bet, so in that case it's 7:1 on a call.

Well i understood the fact that if there is already 700 and someone bets 100 that means theres 800 in the pot thats been commited so your getting 8 to 1, if you want to call 100 extra.

Im sure gordons example said that there was 700 in the pot (not that there was 700 THEN someone bet 100 making it 800) so someone actually bet 100 into a 600 pot, then now up to you.

Im sure there was 600 in the pot the other person (heads up example) bet 100 making it 700. then he said your 100 extra to call makes up one 8th of the pot therefore 8 to 1.

So if this did in fact happen that is wrong just as i thought? Im saying this just in case this actually was the case.

And calling 100 into a pot that is 700 (taking into account all bets before you) is actually 7 to 1. Not 8 to 1 as it makes up one eighth of the pot???


I will go back and watch it to determine if i have just misunderstood it. But if it was wrong as i think is what im saying above correct?

Ok i just watched it again. I watched it a while ago, so i did get it slightly wrong but i did get what i wanted to say right.

Heres exactly what happened....

He (phil gordon) says the pot is 600 (counting what the person has just bet) and you have to call 100. Therefore you are getting 6 to 1.

Your 100 call will make up 1/7th of the pot. Therefore 1/7th= 14%.

Therefore you need better than a 14% chance of winning to make that call.

The above is what he said.......

The last part when it goes from 6 to 1 to 1/7th was where i was getting confused.

I would have thought since its 6 to 1 your % is 16.6% or 17% to round it. When working out percentages do you change it from say 6 to 1 to 1/7th then work out based on that. I thought the % would be based on one 6th???

I know its not much % difference really but either way i wanted to get it right.

i need help.I dont no how to count % from preflop right to the river mybe a few of u guys would b kind enought to help me thanks

Ok i just watched it again. I watched it a while ago, so i did get it slightly wrong but i did get what i wanted to say right.

Heres exactly what happened....

He (phil gordon) says the pot is 600 (counting what the person has just bet) and you have to call 100. Therefore you are getting 6 to 1.

Your 100 call will make up 1/7th of the pot. Therefore 1/7th= 14%.

Therefore you need better than a 14% chance of winning to make that call.

The above is what he said.......

The last part when it goes from 6 to 1 to 1/7th was where i was getting confused.

I would have thought since its 6 to 1 your % is 16.6% or 17% to round it. When working out percentages do you change it from say 6 to 1 to 1/7th then work out based on that. I thought the % would be based on one 6th???

I know its not much % difference really but either way i wanted to get it right.

Anyone????

Imagine a six-sided die. You've got a 1/6th chance of picking the winner. That does not mean "6-to-1". If you give me 6-to-1 odds on this bet, I'll have all your money by the end of the day.

On every roll, there is one winner, and five losers. So the odds of picking the winner are 5-to-1.

1-in-6 chance = 5-to-1 odds.

In the example you cite, 1-in-7 chance = 6-to-1 odds.

Get it?

Ok so the example in Final table poker was correct. It just confused me when kept changing from one style to the next

Thanx for the clarification

You've helped me out a few times. things make more sense when there's an analogy with it. Its good to understand how it is like that not just that it is.

Thanks